Resurrection as Salvation in Ephesians

Preamble

I want to demonstrate that for Paul in Ephesians it is the Resurrection (and Exaltation) of Jesus that is the primary instrument of salvation.

Ephesians 2:1-10

That Ephesians 2:1-10 is a unit can be seen by the inclusio using the verb "walk" (vs 2, 10).  The opening idea states the problem:  we are dead because of trespasses and sins.  This disobedience (v. 2) brings about God's wrath (v. 3).  The solution does not come until v. 5 and again the idea is repeated that we are dead in out trespasses.  The first verbs are "he made [us] alive with" (v. 5)  and "he raised [us] with [him]" (v.6).  This is the grace by which we are saved (v. 5).  It is clear that the solution is our resurrection from spiritual death.  This is predicated on the resurrection of Jesus.  Ephesians 1:20, which immediately precedes 2:1-10, says that God raised him from the dead.

The next verb in v. 6 is "seated us with [him]" in the heavenlies.  This exaltation again echoes what happened to Jesus in 1:20 where Jesus is seated on the right of God in the heavenlies.  This resurrection and exaltation no doubt is what is in mind in the very beginning of Ephesians when we are told that we are blessed with (1) every spiritual blessing, (2) in the heavenlies, and (3) in Christ (v. 1:3).

When we come to 2:8, a verse so dear to evangelicals, we read that we are saved by grace.  I have already contended that the grace involved here is Jesus' resurrection/exaltation.  But we read on: we are saved "through faith".  I have already blogged on this verse but I will hammer my point again.

Jesus' Obedience as key to his Resurrection/Exaltation

I will lay out the evidence with the condition and the instrument of that condition:

• 1:3 having  blessed us ------------- in Christ
• 1:4 he chose us ------------------- in Him
• 1:5 having predestined us  to sonship ------------------ through Jesus Christ
• 1:6 he favored us -------------------------- in the Beloved One
• 1:7 we have redemption/forgiveness of trespasses ----- in whom/through the blood of  him
• 1:9 having made known to us the mystery -------------- in Him
• 1:10 to sum up all things ------------------ in Christ/in Him
• 1:11 we were made an inheritance --------------- in whom/in Christ
• 1:13 salvation, sealed -------------- in whom/in whom
• 1:14 inheritance/redemption ----------------- [in whom]
• 1:20 he exerted ----------------------- in Christ
• 2:7 grace  --------------------------- in Christ
• 2:8 grace, saved ------------------ through faith
• 2:10 masterpiece -------------------------- in Christ Jesus
• 2:13 brought near -------------------------- in Christ Jesus/in the blood of Him
• 2:14 peace ------------------------------ in the flesh of Him
• 2:16 reconciled ---------------------------- through the cross
• 2:18 access --------------------------------through Him
• 3:12 access -----------------------------in whom/through the faithfulness of Him

This catalogue proves, I think, that the faith mentioned in 2:8 and 3:12 are related to those passages concerning Jesus death (vs. 1:7, 2:13, and 2:16).  This would only make sense if we are talking of Jesus' faithfulness/obedience and that his death is ultimately viewed as an act of obedience, even if it is also viewed metaphorically as animal-like sacrifice (5:2).

Our Faith/Belief in Ephesians

It is argued when determining the meaning of "faith" in 2:8 and 3:12 that a believers faith has already been mentioned in 1:1, 13, 15, and 19.  However, in all of these cases, it is not clear that this argument has much value.  Faith in these passages do not play an instrumental role as it is claimed for 2:8 and 3:12.

• 1:1 The faith here is most likely does not have Jesus as the object but is exercised in the realm of Jesus or incorporated with Jesus.  Hence, the NRSV translates 1:1 as the "faithful in Christ Jesus",  This is especially meaningful because if Jesus was faithful then to be incorporated with Jesus is to be faithful too (see Eph. 4:20, where the Ephesians are said to have learned Christ in terms of morality).
• 1:13 Again, it doesn't appear that it is Jesus as the object of faith.  Lincoln translates this verse as follows: "you also are in him, .... In Him also, when you believed, you were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit..."
• 1:15 Again, "in the Lord Jesus" need not be the object of the faith but the realm in which the faith is exercised.
• 1:19 The "ones believing" does not have any immediate instrumental role so this verse is really a moot point.
• 3:17 this later verse does seem to have instrumental import, but it pertains to the believers heart so the believers faith having instrumental powers would make sense here.  It does not however mention faith in/of Him.

More Indications of the Importance of Resurrection/Exaltation in Ephesians

Twice Ephesians calls attention to some authoritative text (Ephesians 4:8 [Ps. 68:18] and 5:14 [baptismal liturgy?]) using the phrase "therefore it says".  Both these passages refer to resurrection/exaltation.

• 4:8 "Having ascended on high he made captivity itself a captive, he gave gifts to his people". 
• 5:14 "Arise, the one sleeping, and rise up from the dead, and Christ will shine on you."

Conclusion

The Resurrection is crucial in Ephesians.  Being raised and exalted with Jesus is the template for the Christian life.  It is how sin is defeated and how the life God intends is to be lived.

John 3:36 and the word apeithon

Preamble

I want to examine one word in one verse from the Gospel of John.  In particular, I want to question why the NIV translators chose the translation they did.  My hunch is that there may be some theological machinations going on under the surface but I will let the reader decide for him or herself.

The Verse: 3:36

The one believing in the Son has eternal life, but the one apeithon the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God remains on him.

The Word: apeithon

Most modern English translations translate apeithon as "disobeys".  However, the two most influential translations for Evangelicals, the King James and the NIV, use different words:

King James: He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not on the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

NIV: Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God's wrath remains on them.

Raymond Brown points out that the Latin tradition reads "disbelieves" on the analogy of 3:18 (The one believing in Him is not judged, but the one not believing already has been judged...), and that it is a natural contrast to the "believes" in  the first part of 3:36.  This  would explain the King James, but what about the NIV?  Why did the NIV chose the word "rejects"?

Other uses of apeithon in the New Testament

Unfortunately, John does not use the word elsewhere, but it is used in other NT books (Acts 14:2; 19:9; Rom. 2:8; 10:21; 11:30; 11:31; 15:31; Heb. 3:18; 11:31; 1 Pet. 3:1; 3:20; 4:17).

Romans 2:8  is instructive.  In Romans 2:6, Paul states a principle that God will recompense to each man according to his works (erga).  In verse 2:7, Paul states the positive outcome: to those who work (ergou) good, life eternal (sounds like John!).  But 2:8 states the negative outcome: to those being selfish and apeithousi the truth, wrath and anger (sounds like John!).  There is little question that our word in question is at least related to an action verb, especially given the emphasis on works in these verses.  This would make the word "disobeys" a natural translation.

Some of Paul's other uses of the word also pertain to actions.  In Romans 10:21, he quotes Isaiah 65:2: I reach out my hands toward a people apeithounta and opposing.  Isaiah 65:2 talks about those who "go the way not good", which is definitely an action.  Hebrews 3:18, similarly, mentions our word in relation to rebellion in 3:16 and sin in 3:17, both which have to do with action in relation to God, for which "disobedience" would be a dead-on translation.

It's interesting that both Hebrews 3:18 and 11:31 relate our word to either faith or unbelief, as does John 3:36.  I think the moral here is not to change the meaning of apeithon  but to broaden our conception of "belief" as used by NT writers!

NIV and John 3:36

So, why did the NIV use the word "rejects".  It could be that the root word of apeithon has to do with persuasion or the like and so rejects might seem appropriate.  My own sense is that the word "rejects" can naturally pertain to beliefs.  One can reject proposition such as "Jesus is the Son of God" or "Jesus died for my sins".  Is this a theological tipping of the hat by the NIV translators?  You be the judge!

Theological Upshot

To disobey the Son has to do with actions (works) and not just beliefs.  John is not just talking about believing the right stuff.  However, as I hope this exercise has shown, in order to teach obedience we first have to get the word right!  As I point out on my website, John 3:36 ought to inform our take on John 3:16, which for many is the Gospel in a nut-shell.