Leviticus 18:5 and the Resurrection of Jesus

Introduction

In my last post, I claimed the Habakkuk 2:4 is the Gospel in a nutshell.  I now want to discuss Leviticus 18:5, which was probably the "John 3:16" of its day (Ezek 20:11, 13, 21; Neh 9:29; probably Luke 10:28; Gal. 3:12; Rom. 10:5; see also Pss. Sol. 14:2-3; CD III, 14-16; Philo, Congr 86-87; 4Q266, 11; 4Q504, 6; L.A.B. 23:10).  I contend that when Paul quotes Leviticus 18:5 he does so Christologically and therefore Leviticus 18:5 refers to Jesus' resurrection and his faithfulness, which is exactly what I claimed was going on with Habakkuk 2:4!  I'm going to first make my case in Romans and then turn to Galatians.

Original Context

Leviticus chapter 18 may be outlined as follows:
I. Israel not to mimic pagans but to obey God (2b-5)
II. Specific behavior that the Israelites are not to mimic (6-23)
III. Consequences for Israel if they do mimic pagans (24-30)

Beginning with (III), the consequence for the Israelites not obeying God's "statutes and judgments" is the they will be vomited by the land, just as the pagans were vomited by the land.  We are told that the pagans were cast out by God and that those Israelites who engage in such behaviour are to be cut off from their people.

In (I), we are told that that the Israelites are to obey God's "statutes and judgments" so that by doing them they will live in them (18:5).  The "will live" refers to the reward of life for obeying God.  This is so, I argue, because the contrast made in (III) for disobeying is exile and perhaps also death.  The same phrase, "statutes and judments", appears in (I) (verse 5) and in (III) (verse 26).  I say all this to establish that the phrase "to live" refers to life as a reward and not as a mode of being which English translations often leave ambiguous (this is the same problem faced by Habakkuk 2:4).

Romans 10:5

Paul quotes Leviticus 18:5 in Romans 10:5.  I think the standard evangelical interpretation of this quote is all wrong.  The standard reading has Paul quoting Leviticus 18:5 as the wrong way to pursue righteousness because it involves "doing".  I think this is wrong. 

In 9:31, Paul says that Israel pursued a law of righteousness but to that law did not arrive.  It is important for this verse to sink in.  Paul is not saying that Israel was wrong in pursuing the law, he is saying that they did not arrive at the goal (=law!).  They did not arrive at the goal because the goal of the law is Jesus (Rom. 10:4)!  The Israelites stumbled on the stone (= Jesus, see 1 Peter 2:6-8).

The goal of the law is Jesus.  This is exactly what Romans 10:4 says.  However, the standard evangelical reading interprets this verse to mean that Jesus is the end (taking the greek telos to mean "end" and not "goal") of the law, that is, Jesus terminated the law.  This in turn, leads directly to the wrong interpretation of Leviticus 18:5.  But we ought to keep in mind the fact that according to the standard evangelical reading, Paul is pitting scripture (Leviticus 18:5) against scripture (Deuteronomy 30).  Not only is this implausible, but it is a lousy strategy to use against his opponents, and he would be undermining his own goal of arguing that the word of God has not failed!

I take it that when Paul says that Jesus is the goal of the law, he is saying that the law points to Jesus and the Christ-event (death/resurrection/exaltation).  This is why he quotes Leviticus 18:5 and Deuteronomy 30:12-14, because they both refer to the Christ-event:
Romans 10:5 with my gloss:

   For Moses writes concerning the righteousness of the law, that the man [Jesus] having done these things [obeyed God unto death] will live [resurrected] in them.

I take it that the next quote (also Moses=Deuteronomy!) also refers to the Christ event.  English translations already muddy the waters by translating the connective de as "but" however, de can also mean "and" and this is how Paul uses de in other places (Rom. 7:8; 10:10; 11:15).  The Deuteronomy text refers to both Jesus' exaltation (10:6, some think this refers to his incarnation but see 10:9) and to his resurrection (10:7 and 9).

Both Leviticus 18:5 and Deuteronomy 30 evidence the resurrection of Jesus (!) and that is why Paul quotes them.  Paul often fires a double shot of scripture at us, probably to fulfill the "two witnesses" idea: Rom. 9:25-26, 27-28, 30; 10:11-13, 20-21; 11:8-9, 26-27.

Galatians 3:12

I claim the same strategy Paul used in Romans is at work in Galatians.  Let me start by lining up three verses:

• 3:11a  by law--------no one--------justified
• 3:11b by faith-------the righteous--------will live
• 3:12b in them--------the one having done these things--------will live

I claim that both Habakkuk 2:4 (see my last blog) and Leviticus 18:5 are used by Paul as witnesses to both Jesus' obedience and his resurrection.  In Gal. 3:12 Paul says:

 But the law is not of faith, but (all') the one having done these things will live in [or "on account of"] them.

Most would take 12b to explain why the law is not of faith (because it involves doing).  I think this is wrong.  By "law" here, Paul means "works of the law" (see 3:10) and what he means is the idea that Jews can by members of God's family solely on account of their racial makeup which is proven by works of the law (circumcision etc).  Paul's point is that just because one is Jewish does not mean one is faithful and a member of the saved family of God.  The all' in this verse contrasts Jewish disobedience (= cursed=death) with the true faithfulness of Jesus (=blessing=life).  Leviticus 18:5 (3:12b) is being contrasted with 3:12a and NOT 3:11 (= Habakkuk 2:4).  Both Habakkuk 2:4 and Leviticus 18:5 reward obedience with life and that is the Christ-event!

Conclusion

When Paul uses scripture to evidence the Christ-event he has in mind the resurrection/exaltation of Jesus.  This goes to show how important the resurrection is to Paul's salvation scheme.