Romans 11:26 and Politics

Preamble

It is no doubt true that one's political commitments effects how one reads the New Testament.  I believe this is especially true in regard to Romans 11:26 and the modern state of Israel.  I contend that parties to the debate about the meaning of "all Israel will be saved" sometimes let their politics seep into their exegesis.  Christian Zionists tend to see "all Israel" as ethnic Israel and those angry at Christian Zionist's for their blind support for the state of Israel vis-a-vis the Palestinians tend to view "all Israel" as the Church. Be that as it may, I want to give my take on this passage and how it might or might not relate to the modern state of Israel.  My basic conclusion is that Paul has said enough before verse 26 to claim the ethnic Israel plays a part in Paul's eschatology.

Romans 11

I first want to present an argument that 11:26 does refer to ethnic Israel as its primary meaning.  The structure of chapter 11 revolves around the questions Paul asks: "has God rejected his people" (v. 1) and "have they stumbled so as to fall? (v. 11).  That the chapter has to do with ethnic Israel is clear by theses questions and the number of clear references to ethnic Israel:

• His people (vs. 1,2)
• Israel (vs. 2,7,25)
• [those of] my flesh (v.14)
• lump (v.16)
• branches (v.16,17,18,19,21)
• natural branches (v.24)
• Jacob (v.26b)

This laundry list is meant to point out that v.26 is clearly embedded in a discussion of Israel.  Those who think that "all Israel" in v.26 is the Church have to basically claim that vs. 25-27 or 25-32 are summarizing a larger argument and in this larger argument Paul does include Gentiles in "Israel" (see 9:24).  My point is that even if "all Israel" includes Gentiles here it is also true that Paul is emphasizing ethnic Israel's salvation in this verse and in this section.  I think this is bolstered by the scripture from Isaiah 59 in v.26b that mentions Jacob, which even if includes Gentiles in Paul's mind, I think here pertains to ethnic Israel.  Paul's point is that God is able to banish ethnic Israel's ungodliness.  Note the symmetry between v.25, 26b and v.27 which sandwich v.26a:

v.25 hardness in part to Israel has happened
v.26b he will turn away ungodliness from Jacob
v.27 when I take away the sins of them

Therefore, I think that verse 26 is meant to emphasize Jewish ability to be grafted back in.  It is hard to view vs.25-7 as purely summary unless vs.28-32 are also summary but these verses also discuss ethnic Israel as distinct from Gentiles.

Now I want to argue that it is not really decisive if v.26a refers to ethnic Israel or not.  There are four main stages in Romans 11.

1. Jewish disobedience
2. Gentile salvation
3. Jewish salvation
4. Consequences of Jewish salvation

There are also the transitions between these stages that I will describe thus:

• (1)- (2) It is not exactly clear how (1) leads to (2) but a popular conjecture is that according to Acts when the Jews rejected the Gospel, the preachers turned to the Gentiles (Acts 11:19-21; 13:45-48; 18:6; 19:8-10; 28:23-29).
• (2)- (3) It is Jewish jealousy that drives this transition (10:19 [Deut. 32:21]; 11:14).
• (3)- (4) Stage four is only mentioned twice (11:12 and 11:15) and Paul does not give us details how Jewish salvation is beneficial.  However, it is precisely this stage that I think has important theological consequences. 

Christological Role

Many scholars have noted the similarity between 5:10 and 11:15:

5:10: For if while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God through the death of his Son, much more surely, having been reconciled, we will be saved by his life.

11:15: For if their rejection is the reconciliation of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead.

Paul is describing Israel in Christological terms.  This, I contend, shows that ethnic Israel does have a role in Paul's eschatology.  Even though there is no difference between Jew and Gentile in the sense of membership, that does not mean there cannot be a difference in role--as one scholar has put it: "unity does not mean uniformity" (this should have already been clear in Paul's body of Christ metaphor).

Therefore, a role can be found for ethnic Israel even if one sees Paul as including Gentiles in "Israel", even if the mystery of 11:25 is not new, even if Israel has to believe in Jesus to be saved, even if there is no necessary connection with the Parousia (though reference to the dead and the fullness-of-Gentiles-already-accomplished hints at this) etc.  The "fullness" mentioned in 11:12 relates to "all Israel" in 11:26.

State of Israel

None of this, or course, has any necessary relationship to the modern State of Israel, which is as of right now not believing in Jesus.  However, given the Christological role that Paul hints at for Israel, I find it interesting that the two major Jewish event in the twentieth century come very close to death/resurrection vocabulary: holocaust/birth of Israel.  This is just a conjecture but maybe the delay in the Kingdom of God on earth is related to the continuing Jewish unbelief/unfullness of Gentile making Jew jealous.  Given how much God values free will, his patience is amazing. 

Be that as it may, I think I have shown that Paul does have a role for Israel even if he didn't (and we don't) know exactly what that role was (is).